Mental Maths for Class 3

Mental Maths for Class 3

Mental Maths for Class 3

 

Mental Maths for class 3 covers every type of mental maths questions for class 3 students. It is very helpful to sharp the brain of class 3 students.

The mental maths for class 3 covers the following topics:

  •        Numbers
  •         Addition
  •         Subtraction
  •         Multiplication
  •         Fractions
  •         Shapes
  •         Measurement
  •         Time
  •         Money

 


Mental Maths for Class 3

 

1. Write the number which has 6 thousands, 2 hundreds and 5 ones. ..................

2. Write the place value of 5 in 1546. ..........................

3. Write the greatest 4-digit number. ..........................

4. The predecessor of 2459 is ......................... and its successor is ...................... .

5. Form the largest 4-digit number using the digits in each flower only once. Now, arrange these numbers in ascending and descending order.

6. The smallest 4-digit number that can be formed using 0, 3, 5 and 1 is ........... .

7. If 284 is rounded off to the nearest hundred, it becomes ......................... .

8. Write the smallest 4-digit odd number. .........................

9. If a number ends with 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8, it is called an ......................... number.

10. Pair the objects and write odd (O) or even (E).

a. Ascending order: _________________________________________

b. Descending order: ________________________________________

11. 340 + 690 is the same as ......................... .

a. 730 + 200          b. 850 + 280          c. 400 + 630

12. Which of the following gives the correct sum?

a. 999 + 0 = 998      b. 999 + 0 = 1000      c. 999 + 1 = 1000

13. The sum of the smallest 3-digit number and 99 is ...................... .

14. The sum of the greatest 2-digit number and the greatest 3-digit number is ...................... .

15. The sum of 99 and 1 is ...................... .

16. When we add the smallest 3-digit number to 0, the sum is ...................... .

17. Add: 999 + 99 + 9 = ...................... .

18. 243 + 483 is equal to ......................... .

a. 483 + 243        b. 443 + 384       c. 443 + 284

19. Which of the following is not correct?

a. 811 + 89 = 900        b. 445 + 255 = 800         c. 295 + 105 = 400

20. Add the following with correct rearrangement.

a. 12 + 135 + 88 + 265

b. 215 + 75 + 85 + 125

c. 99 + 109 + 101 + 391

d. 313 + 80 + 87 + 120

21. 658 – 608 is the same as ........................... .

a. 10 + 70           b. 28 + 22        c. 100 – 40

22. Hemant and Neha together have a total of 574 stamps. If Hemant has 319 stamps, then Neha has ........................... .

a. 259 stamps        b. 155 stamps     c. 255 stamps

23. The sum of two numbers is 892. If one of them is 475, then the other number is ................ .

24. 459 – 409 = ................ – 50

25. 5962 – ................ = 4962

26. The birth years of four of Riya’s friends are given below.

Nisha—2005       Ritu—2004         Ananya—2006      Preetha—2009

Based on this information, answer the following questions.

a. Who is the youngest in the group and who is the oldest?

..................................................................................................................................

b. How old will be Manisha and Preetha in 2023?

..................................................................................................................................

c. What is the difference between the ages of Ritu and Ananya?

.................................................................................................................................

27. Fill in the blanks.

a. 4762 – 1 = __________

b. 1932 – 1932 = _________

c. 9854 – 0 = _________

d. 4683 – 1000 = ________

28. Which of the following is correct?

a. 5782 – 2741 = 3141            b. 8291 – 3639 = 4752        c. 6214 – 4276 = 1938

29. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. 9467 – 4728 = 4739            b. 7356 – 2762 = 4694        c. 8401 – 5162 = 3239

30. Subtract the following.

a. 1000 – 465                  b. 800 – 123

31. Which product from the following options is equal to 17 + 23?

a. 5 × 6             b. 8 × 5            c. 10 × 2

32. Which one of the following products lies between 70 and 80?

a. 8 × 7            b. 9 × 8             c. 7 × 10

33. Which one of the following is wrong?

a. 9 × 100 = 900      b. 20 × 200 = 400     c. 7 × 1000 = 7000

34. 3000 × 2 = (............... × ..............) × 1000

35. 12 × 6 hundreds = ..............................

36. Tick the product from the following options which is equal to 28 + 22.

a. 6 × 5            b. 10 × 4         c. 5 × 10

37. Tick one of the following products which lies between 55 and 60.

a. 6 × 9            b. 7 × 8            c. 9 × 8

38. There are 8 packets of 26 candles each. The total number of candles is ............ .

a. 218              b. 208              c. 228

39. 6 bags contain 25 candies each. The total number of candies is ............... .

a. 120                 b. 180               c. 150

40. Megha buys 18 chocolates for her birthday party. Each chocolate costs ` 10. How much money did she pay for the chocolates? ........................

41. Manish bought 3 cans of fruit juice and drank 2 cans out of it. The fraction of fruit juice cans consumed by him is ...................... .

a. 2/5                b. 1/3                c. 2/3

42. In a mathematics test, Piya scored 8 out of 10. The fraction of marks scored by Piya is .............................. .

a. 8/10               b. 2/10              c. 2/8

43. There are 9 chocolates. Megha eats 4 of them. The fraction of chocolates eat­en by Megha is .............................. .

a. 5/9                b. 4/9                c. 9/13

44. There are 24 mangoes in a basket. Half of them are ripe. The number of ripe mangoes in the basket is .............................. .

a. 10                   b. 11                  c. 12

45. Half of half is .............................. .

46. One-fourth of 28 = ..............................

47. One-third of 39 = ……………………..

48. Two-thirds of 18 = ……………….

49. Out of 36 candies, one-fourth has been eaten. The number of remaining candies is .............................. .

50. Nisha had 25 marbles. She gave three-fifths of the marbles to her brother. How many marbles did she give to her brother? ………………..

51. State whether the outer surface of the following objects is flat or curved.

  Flat/Curved            Flat/Curved                Flat/Curved

52. State whether the outer line of the following shapes is straight or curved.                     

Straight/Curved      Straight/Curved       Straight/Curved

53. What is the shape of a water bottle? _____________________

54. What is the shape of a carrot? ___________________

55. How many end points are there in a line segment? ________________

56. How many end points are there in a ray? _____________________

57. How many geometrical pieces does a tangram hold? ______________

58. If east is the opposite of west, what is the opposite of north? _____________

59. How many faces are there in a sphere? _______________

60. How many vertices are there in a cylinder? ______________

61. Which item is heavier? Write the correct answer in the space provided.

a. An eraser or half kg of potatoes: .........................................................

b. One kg of rice or a toothbrush: .........................................................

c. A cow or a dog: .........................................................

d. A table of a school bag: …………………………………….

62. Which unit would you use to weigh the following things?

a. A pencil: ...........                     b. A school bag: ...........

c. A geometry box: ...........         d. A packet of flour: ...........

e. A mobile phone: ...........            f. A bike: ...........

63. Tick the object whose weight is greater than 1 kg.

a. A television            b. A pair of socks

c. A candle                 d. An elephant

64. Tick the object whose weight is less than 1 kg.

a. A gas cylinder                 b. A car

c. A matchbox                     d. A lunchbox

65. Which unit would you use to measure the following lengths?

a. The length of a saree         b. The length of your classroom

c. The length of a pencil        d. The height of a tree

66. Fill in the blanks.

a. 1 kilogram = ........... grams           b. 3 litres = ........... mL

c. 8 kilometres = ........... metres       d. 4 kilograms = ........... grams

67. Which unit would you use to measure the capacity of the following objects?

a. A cup: ………………                b. A tank: ………………….

c. A bucket: …………...                d. A spoon: ……………….

68. If the minute hand is at 9 and the hour hand is between 4 and 5, we say that

the time is ............................ .

a. quarter past 4           b. quarter to 5           c. quarter to 4

69. The adjoining clock shows ............................ .

a.     half past 9        b. 5 minutes past 9      c. 10 o’ clock
70. Which of the following clocks shows quarter past 5?
71. The day before Thursday is ……………………… .
a. Tuesday              b. Wednesday               c. Friday
72. The day after Sunday is …………………….. .
a. Saturday            b. Friday                        c. Monday
73. The month that comes in between July and September is …………………. .
a. August               b. June                            c. October
74. In a leap year, February has ............................ days.
a. 28           b. 29        c. 30
75. 7:50 can also be written as ............................ .
a. half past 7                 b. 10 minutes to 8           c. 10 minutes past 7
76. The day that comes after Saturday is ............................ .
a. Sunday          b. Monday         c. Tuesday
77. The day that comes before Friday is ............................ .
a. Tuesday          b. Wednesday         c. Thursday
78. How many days in a week start with the letter ‘S’?
a. 3        b. 4           c. 2
79. 25 December 2020 can also be written as ............................ .
a. 25.12.2020        b. 12.25.2020         c. 12.12.2020
80. The month that comes after July is …………….. .
a. June           b. August             c. September
81. Which one of the following options add up to Rs 15?

82. A pencil costs Rs 5.50. The cost of 4 such pencils is
a. Rs 20.00               b. Rs 21.00             c. Rs 22.00
83. 615 p can also be written as
a. Rs 6.15                b. Rs 615                 c. Rs 61.5
For questions 84 to 86, refer to the following pictures.

84. The pen costs .................... more than the eraser.

a. Rs 5                       b. Rs 10                   c. Rs 15

85. The cost of 2 pencils and .................... erasers are the same.

a. 3                            b. 4                          c. 5

86. The cost of 3 pens and 1 eraser is ................... .

a. Rs 40                     b. Rs 45                  c. Rs 50

87.................... Rs 50 notes make Rs 400.

a. 6                            b. 7                          c. 8

88. Tick the incorrect sentence.

a. 5 two-rupee coins make Rs 10.        b. 4 five-rupee coins make Rs 25.

c. 10 one-rupee coins make Rs 10.      d. 8 five-rupee coins make Rs 40.

89. Rs 15 is ……………… Rs 20.

a. greater than            b. less than               c. equal to

90. Four Rs 5 notes make ………………. .

a. Rs 15                        b. Rs 20                      c. Rs 25


Worksheets for Maths


Maths Worksheets for Class 1

Maths Worksheets for Class 2

Maths Worksheets for Class 3

Maths Worksheets for Class 4

Maths Worksheets for Class 5

Maths Worksheets for Class 6

Maths Worksheets for Class 7

Maths Worksheets for Class 8

Maths Worksheets for Class 9

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